RRB Group D 2026: CBT Done, Answer Key Out, Result Next

RRB Group D 2026: the CBT is over and the answer key is out

RRB Group D 2026, advertised as CEN 09/2025, fills 22,195 Level 1 posts in Indian Railways. Its Computer Based Test ran from 3 to 25 August 2026 across 16 days, in three shifts a day at more than 200 centres, and the Railway Recruitment Boards published the provisional answer key on 7 September 2026. The objection window that followed it has closed.

What is left is the result, which the RRBs have not dated. Normalisation can only be applied once every shift is accounted for, so the result is expected towards the end of October 2026. The admit card was released from 31 July 2026 and the city intimation slip from 24 July 2026, both on rrbapply.gov.in and the regional RRB websites.

This is one of the largest recruitment exercises anywhere. Reported applicant figures vary widely across sources, from around 58 lakh to close to a crore, and the exact number is not something any secondary site can confirm. Either way, 22,195 posts against a field that size means the Computer Based Test is decided on a handful of marks, and the negative marking on this paper is the reason many candidates lose them.

The CBT schedule as it ran

The Railway Recruitment Board revised this schedule once during the cycle. These are the days the exam was held on.

Sixteen days, three shifts each, which means a large number of distinct question papers. Because of that, RRB applies normalisation across shifts, so your final score is adjusted for the relative difficulty of the paper you sat rather than taken as a raw total. A candidate who gets a harder shift is not penalised for it, and equally a raw score from an easier shift does not carry the advantage it appears to.

Why you are seeing two sets of contradictory dates

Search for RRB Group D right now and you will find pages announcing that the CBT is starting alongside pages announcing that PET dates are out and results have been declared. Both are accurate. They describe different recruitment cycles.

If you applied in the current round, yours is CEN 09/2025 and the result is your live stage. The PET notices circulating now belong to the earlier cycle and do not apply to you. Check the CEN number on your admit card if you are unsure, because acting on the wrong cycle's notice is the most common avoidable error in railway recruitment.

Exam day: what to carry and what to expect

Take the printed admit card and the original photo identity document whose details you entered in your application. RRB is strict on the identity document matching the application, and a mismatch is grounds for being turned away.

Reach the centre by the reporting time on the admit card, not the exam start time. Gates close well before the paper begins, and RRB does not admit latecomers. Biometric verification and document checks take time, which is why the reporting window opens so far ahead.

Electronic items are prohibited: mobile phones, smart watches, calculators, Bluetooth devices and any storage media. So are bags, written material and, at most centres, metallic items and jewellery. Centres do not reliably provide storage, so carry as little as possible.

The paper is 90 minutes, extended to 120 minutes for candidates with a disability who have been granted a scribe or compensatory time.

Exam pattern

The CBT is a single objective paper of 100 questions.

Duration is 90 minutes. Each correct answer carries 1 mark, and one third of a mark is deducted for each wrong answer.

That negative marking deserves attention, because several other recruitments carry none and the habits do not transfer. Work the arithmetic. A correct answer gains 1, a wrong one costs 0.33. Guessing blindly among four options gives you one correct and three wrong on average, so 1 minus 0.99, which is essentially break-even with added variance and no real gain. Eliminate one option and the odds tilt in your favour. Eliminate two and answering is clearly correct.

The practical rule: answer everything you know or can narrow to two options, and leave alone the questions where you have no basis at all. Candidates who carry an attempt-everything habit from exams like UP Police or Bihar Police, where there is no penalty, hand back marks here.

Qualifying marks

Clearing the paper requires a minimum percentage that varies by category, commonly applied as 40 per cent for unreserved and EWS candidates, 30 per cent for OBC and SC, and 25 per cent for ST, with relaxation for candidates with disabilities where there is a shortfall.

Meeting that minimum is not selection. It makes you eligible to be ranked, and the actual shortlisting for the PET is done on normalised merit against the vacancy position in your region, which sits far above the qualifying floor.

Syllabus

The paper is pitched at Class 10 level and rewards coverage more than depth.

Reasoning carries the most questions at 30 and covers analogies, series completion, coding and decoding, mathematical operations, relationships, syllogism, Venn diagrams, data interpretation, statement and conclusion, directions and analytical reasoning. It is the most trainable section, since the question types repeat and practice converts directly into speed.

Mathematics covers number systems, decimals and fractions, LCM and HCF, ratio and proportion, percentages, mensuration, time and work, time and distance, simple and compound interest, profit and loss, algebra, geometry and trigonometry basics, elementary statistics, and age and calendar problems.

General Science covers physics, chemistry and life sciences at Class 10 level. Physics and chemistry tend to carry more weight than biology in recent papers.

General Awareness and Current Affairs covers science and technology, sports, culture, personalities, economics, politics and general current affairs, with a bias towards the last year and towards railway-related developments.

What the Level 1 posts actually are

Level 1 covers six categories of post, and they are different jobs despite sharing an entry route.

Pointsman operates points and signals at stations and yards, a safety-critical outdoor role often on night shifts. Track Maintainer Grade IV maintains the permanent way, which is physically demanding outdoor work on the track itself. Assistant posts in the Loco Shed, in Operations, and in TL and AC support maintenance and operations in depots and on trains. The remaining assistant categories cover workshop and departmental support roles.

Post preference is exercised during the application and allocation follows merit, region and vacancy position. Almost all of these involve shift work, outdoor conditions and a physical component, which is why the recruitment carries a Physical Efficiency Test at all.

Physical Efficiency Test

The PET is pass or fail. It adds no marks to your merit position, and failing it removes you regardless of your CBT score.

The lifting event is the one candidates underestimate, and the condition attached to it is what makes it hard: the weight has to be carried the full 100 metres in a single attempt without being put down. That is a grip strength and carrying endurance problem more than a maximal strength one, and it is not something general gym work prepares you for specifically. Loaded carries, farmer's walks and grip work are the training that transfers.

The running standard is more forgiving. 1000 metres in 4 minutes 15 seconds for men works out to about 4 minutes 15 seconds per kilometre, which is demanding but well short of the 800 metre standards in state police recruitment.

Both events are attempted in sequence and both must be cleared.

Selection process

The medical standard varies by post, and it is stricter than candidates expect for safety-related categories. Vision requirements for Pointsman and other safety posts in particular rule out candidates who would pass the standard for a clerical role, so check the medical classification for the posts you have preferenced.

Salary of an RRB Group D employee

Level 1 of the 7th Pay Commission matrix carries a basic pay of Rs 18,000 a month, with an annual increment of about Rs 500 at the entry stage.

On top of basic pay come dearness allowance at the prevailing rate, house rent allowance at 8, 16 or 24 per cent of basic depending on the classification of your posting city, transport allowance, and railway-specific allowances including running or shift allowances where the post attracts them. Taking those together, in-hand pay at entry commonly works out in the region of Rs 22,500 to Rs 25,380 a month depending on posting and the current DA rate.

The non-cash side matters in railway service more than in most government jobs. Railway quarters where available, the free or concessional pass entitlement for the employee and family, railway medical facilities through railway hospitals, and pension benefits under the applicable rules all carry real value that the headline figure understates.

Career progression

Level 1 is the entry rung and progression runs through departmental channels.

Indian Railways runs an internal promotion system with a defined quota of higher posts filled from serving employees through the General Departmental Competitive Examination and other departmental routes. A Level 1 entrant who prepares for those examinations can move up materially over a career, and many technical supervisors began at this level.

How to use the remaining exam days

Because the CBT runs to 25 August, a large share of candidates still have days or weeks before they sit it, and that time is better spent on the paper's specific demands than on fresh study.

Reasoning is where the marginal marks are. It carries the most questions at 30, the question types repeat across cycles, and speed on them is a trained skill rather than a knowledge one. Working timed sets of past reasoning questions is the highest-return use of a remaining week.

Practise at the real pace. 100 questions in 90 minutes gives you 54 seconds per question, and the paper is not designed for careful deliberation on every item. Candidates lose more to poor time allocation, spending four minutes on a hard maths question, than to gaps in knowledge.

Rehearse the marking decision. Take a full mock, mark each answer as confident, narrowed to two, or pure guess, then score it both ways: once counting your guesses and once leaving them blank. Doing that twice tells you your own accuracy rate on narrowed questions, which is a better guide to exam-day behaviour than any general rule about negative marking.

Revise general science and current affairs last, since those are recall-heavy and benefit from being fresh.

Eligibility

On age, the band for the cycle is set in the CEN, commonly 18 to 36 years for Level 1 posts with relaxation of 3 years for OBC, 5 years for SC and ST, and further relaxation for ex-servicemen and other specified categories.

On education, the requirement is Class 10 pass, or an ITI certificate from an institution recognised by NCVT or SCVT, or an equivalent National Apprenticeship Certificate. A Class 10 pass alone is sufficient for most Level 1 posts.

On medical fitness, each post carries a medical classification and candidates must meet the standard for the post allotted, with vision requirements being the most common ground for rejection in safety categories.

What happens after the CBT

The last shift was held on 25 August 2026 and the provisional answer key came out on 7 September 2026, with objections closing after it. The result follows once normalisation is applied across every shift, which the RRBs have not dated and which past cycles put at roughly two months after the final shift.

Shortlisted candidates are called for the PET, then document verification, then the medical. Use the intervening period rather than waiting on the result. The lifting standard in particular takes weeks of specific training to build, and candidates who begin only after the shortlist is published arrive underprepared for an event that is pass or fail.

Keep your documents ready in the meantime: Class 10 certificate, ITI or NAC certificate where relied on, category certificate in the central government format with a current non-creamy layer certificate for OBC candidates, and the identity documents matching your application.

Vacancy tables: zone-wise and category-wise

The 22,195 posts are split across 17 zonal railways and the Metro Railway Kolkata. Some zones dominate the intake, and choosing a zone with more posts materially improves your appointment odds.

Zone-wise vacancy distribution per rrbapply.gov.in notification:

The category-wise reservation split follows the standard central government pattern, adjusted for EWS and PwBD:

The 3 percent PwBD horizontal reservation is distributed across the four sub-categories: locomotor disability, visual impairment, hearing impairment, and other specified categories per the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act 2016.

Category and zone cutoff matrix 2018 and 2022

Historical cutoffs from CEN 01/2018 (normalised scores) and CEN 08/2024 (raw estimated), sourced from RRB Chandigarh's public results PDF and rrbcdg.gov.in. Use these as a target for your prep.

CEN 01/2018 cutoffs (normalised, out of 100):

CEN 08/2024 raw cutoffs (estimated, before shift normalisation, out of 100):

Two observations. Cutoffs have risen 3 to 4 points across categories between 2018 and 2024, driven by increased candidate quality and lower vacancy counts. Zones with lower vacancy shares (Northeast Frontier, Southern) also have lower cutoffs, but competition from local candidates keeps them from being cakewalks.

Set your target score at 5 to 7 points above the historical UR cutoff in your preferred zone. For Northern Railway UR, that's 79 to 82 marks in the CBT.

Merit tie-breaking rules

When two candidates score identical normalised marks, RRB uses a fixed tie-breaking sequence per the CEN 09/2025 notification:

1. Higher score in Mathematics section.
2. If still tied, higher score in General Intelligence and Reasoning.
3. If still tied, higher score in General Science.
4. If still tied, higher score in General Awareness and Current Affairs.
5. If still tied, older date of birth (the older candidate is ranked higher).
6. If still tied, alphabetical order of first name in English.

Rule 5 (age) means candidates near the upper age boundary get a small advantage in ties. Rule 6 is rarely invoked, mainly for identical siblings with the same date of birth appearing in the same cycle.

PET disqualification reasons

Common PET failures at the actual ground, based on RRB Chandigarh's 2018 and 2019 PET reports:

1. Dropping the weight at any point during the 100 m carry, even at the 99 m mark, counts as a fail. There's no second chance in the same event.
2. Running outside the marked track. Some candidates step out of the lane on curves and are disqualified without warning.
3. False start on the 1,000 m run. Two false starts in the same event end your PET.
4. Foot fault at the 100 m weight-carry start line. Your leading foot must be behind the line, not on it.
5. Bailing out mid-run because of stitches or dizziness. Once you stop, the event is over.
6. Medical disqualification during warm-up if the RRB medical officer observes any abnormal breathing, uncontrolled hypertension, or physical injury.
7. Weight not matching the specified figure. RRB weighs the sack in front of you before the event. Any dispute about weight must be raised before you lift it.
8. Time exceeded on the run: 4 minutes 15 seconds for males, 5 minutes 40 seconds for females, measured to the split second.

The margin between qualifying and failing is thin. Train to hit 3 minutes 55 seconds on the 1,000 m and 1 minute 45 seconds on the weight carry. A 20-second buffer accounts for grip fumbles, uneven ground, and warm-up shortfalls.

Official links and helplines

Frequently asked questions

When is the RRB Group D 2026 exam? The Computer Based Test for CEN 09/2025 runs across 16 days in August 2026: the 3rd, 4th, 5th, 6th, 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th, 13th, 14th, 17th, 18th, 19th, 20th, 21st and 25th, in three shifts a day at more than 200 centres. The schedule was revised, so rely on the date printed on your admit card rather than an earlier notice.

How do I download the RRB Group D admit card 2026? Admit cards were released from 31 July 2026 on rrbapply.gov.in and the regional Railway Recruitment Board websites, four days before the first exam date. The city intimation slip, which tells you your exam city ahead of the admit card, was released from 24 July 2026. Log in with your registration number and date of birth.

Is there negative marking in RRB Group D? Yes. One third of a mark is deducted for each wrong answer, against 1 mark for a correct one. Blind guessing among four options is roughly break-even and adds variance, so answer where you know the answer or can narrow it to two options, and leave the rest. This differs from several state police recruitments that carry no penalty, and the habits do not transfer.

How many vacancies are in RRB Group D 2026? There are 22,195 Level 1 vacancies under CEN 09/2025, covering Pointsman, Track Maintainer Grade IV, Assistant Loco Shed, Assistant Operations, Assistant TL and AC, and other assistant categories. Reported applicant numbers vary between about 58 lakh and close to a crore across sources.

What is the RRB Group D exam pattern? One objective Computer Based Test of 100 questions for 100 marks in 90 minutes, extended to 120 minutes for eligible candidates with a disability. The split is General Intelligence and Reasoning 30, Mathematics 25, General Science 25, and General Awareness and Current Affairs 20. One third of a mark is deducted per wrong answer, and scores are normalised across shifts.

What are the RRB Group D PET standards? Male candidates must carry 35 kg over 100 metres in under 2 minutes without setting the weight down, and run 1000 metres in 4 minutes 15 seconds. Female candidates must carry 20 kg over 100 metres in under 2 minutes on the same condition, and run 1000 metres in 5 minutes 40 seconds. The PET is qualifying only and adds no marks to merit, but failing it ends the attempt.

What is the salary of an RRB Group D employee? Level 1 of the 7th CPC matrix carries a basic pay of Rs 18,000 a month. With dearness allowance, house rent allowance at 8 to 24 per cent by city class, transport allowance and railway allowances, in-hand pay at entry is commonly about Rs 22,500 to Rs 25,380 depending on posting and the current DA rate. Railway quarters where available, the travel pass entitlement and railway medical facilities add substantial non-cash value.

What are the qualifying marks for RRB Group D? The minimum is commonly 40 per cent for unreserved and EWS candidates, 30 per cent for OBC and SC candidates and 25 per cent for ST candidates, with relaxation for candidates with disabilities where there is a shortfall. Meeting the minimum only makes you eligible to be ranked. Shortlisting for the PET is done on normalised merit against the vacancy position in your region, which sits well above the qualifying floor.

Why do some sites say RRB Group D PET dates are out while others say the CBT is starting? Because two cycles are live at the same time. CEN 08/2024 has had its result declared and is at the Physical Efficiency Test and later stages, while CEN 09/2025 is the cycle whose Computer Based Test runs from 3 to 25 August 2026. Check the CEN number on your admit card to know which notices apply to you.

What is the educational qualification for RRB Group D? Class 10 pass from a recognised board, or an ITI certificate from an institution recognised by NCVT or SCVT, or an equivalent National Apprenticeship Certificate. A Class 10 pass alone is sufficient for most Level 1 posts, which makes this one of the most accessible central government recruitments by qualification.

What is normalisation in the RRB Group D exam? Because the exam runs across 16 days in three shifts, many different question papers are used, and they are not equally difficult. RRB applies a normalisation formula that adjusts raw scores for the relative difficulty of the shift a candidate sat. Your final score therefore differs from your raw score, and results can only be published once every shift has been conducted.

What documents should I carry to the RRB Group D exam? The printed admit card and the original photo identity document whose details match your application. RRB is strict on that match. Mobile phones, smart watches, calculators, Bluetooth devices, storage media, bags and written material are prohibited, and most centres also bar metallic items and jewellery. Arrive by the reporting time on the admit card rather than the exam start time, since gates close well before the paper begins.